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God calls preachers and does not give them the same ministry functions and scope. That is why Ephesians 4:11 speaks of apostles, prophets, evangelists, pastors and teachers; other complementary ministry functions and scopes are mentioned elsewhere in the scriptures. I must be faithful to the calling God has given me.
So I do not minister in traditional ways all of the time. I do strive to minister according to biblically mandated and biblically allowed flexible human preferential ways all the time. I minister according to the insight God gives me by his Holy Spirit as to my own spiritual and other conditions and the spiritual and other conditions of the people, individually and collectively as a nation and world.
I and TLCMBC are not about judging persons unto condemnation for that is for Jesus and Jesus alone to decide or not decide in the end time. It is about judging my own and all people thinking, words, and actions as to whether it aligns with the Word, Will, and Way of God (John 17:1-26). That is what distinguishes a preacher convicted of and committed to God's Word, Will, and Way in all areas of life from a person who is simply a motivation speaker or one who is only concerned with personal satisfaction and wealth and thus satisfy the itching ears of people with rebellious desires (2 Tim 4:1-11).
I am fully aware that people sometimes may disagree with what I preach and teach. That certainly happens as we all are at different levels of spiritual maturity and none of us know it all down here (1 Cor 13:8-13). To all I simply say this: show me in scripture where I am wrong and I will gladly be humble enough to change my view. I ask that until you can do so that you be humble enough to accept my view as godly truth. But I sense that some have and still are dabbling in and accepting different contradictory religions/writings and secular/societal ideas that they reject the Bible as the binding and sufficient word of God to determine moral truths; well I will not bow down to such even if I have to stand alone.
Basic Reason for Assembly: We assemble for four general purposes:
So bring your talents, treasures, time, and spiritual insight and questions. All are welcome regardless of background or color of skin, etc.
--TLCMBC standard bible version is the Authorized KJV of 1611 as updated in 1769 to reflect a significant change in the English language as the English language has not changed that much since 1769. However, TLCMBC recognizes that numerous translations exist and are used by various persons due to clearer contemporary language constructs in some instances. Unfortunately, there exists some rather significant differences among the translations. For example, consider John 9:35 where in the KJV it says "... Dost thou believe on the Son of God?" but in the New International Version (NIV) it says "...Do you believe in the Son of Man?" such that God is changed to Man. Now we know in the scripture Jesus is referred to as both the Son of Man and the Son of God. Indeed, in Luke 19:10 Jesus speaks of himself as the Son of Man who comes to seek and save those that are lost; indeed, it was his humanity that was crucified and human blood that was shed/emptied (Luke 24:39; John 20:27) on the cross at the place called Calvary (Luke 23:33) and Golgotha (John 19:17). In Matthew 16:16-17 Jesus affirms that he is the Son of God in his response to Peter's declaration that Jesus is such. Also, Jesus implicitly speaks of himself as the Son of God in his reference to God the Father and himself as the Son (e.g., John 5:19; 14:13). In Matthew 3:17 God the Father himself speaks of Jesus as his Son. When combined with the observation that the NIV completely omits Acts 8:37 where it says "And Philip said, If thou believest with all thine heart, thou mayest. And he answered and said, I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.", then this change suggests a strategic satanic (whether intentional or unintentional) weakening of the explicit mentioning of the role of God in salvation. What if a later version of the NIV removes the explicit word God in other places so as to stepwisely overtime render Jesus as mere human in the NIV?
Also consider the New King James Version (NKJV). For Exodus 16:28, in the NKJV we have "And the LORD said to Moses, "How long do you refuse to keep My commandments and My laws?"; but in the KJV we have "And the LORD said unto Moses, How long refuse ye to keep my commandments and my laws?". In the NKJV one might get the impression that God is only talking about Moses disobedience since the word you might be considered singular there; but in the KJV it is clearly speaking about Moses and the nation of Israel as a whole since the word ye is always plural. Also for Hebrews 4:8 the NKJV says "For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day."; but the KJV says "For if Jesus had given them rest, then would he not afterward have spoken of another day.". In Hebrews chapter 3 and 4 the contrast is between Moses and Jesus not Moses and Joshua and not Joshua and Jesus saying that Jesus is superior to Moses. Thus, the idea of Hebrews 4 is that the unbeliever like those in Moses day did not labor in obedience to the the Word of God which Jesus is in the flesh and so we as believers must labor in the obedience to Jesus, the Word of God, to enter into the rest of God. So the KJV is right and the NKJV is wrong.
Also consider Psalm 8:5 where in the KJV it says "For thou hast made him a little lower than the angels..." but in the New American Standard Bible (NASB) it says "Yet You have made him a little lower than God" where the word angels is changed to God; note that the Hebrew word phrase used in Psalm 8:5 seems to modify Elohim (translated as God in Genesis 1:1) by preceding it with a Hebrew word meaning from or out of such that the KJV translators determined the phrase to mean angels; this is consistent with Hebrews 2:7 that uses the Greek word aggelos for angels in seemingly quoting from Psalm 8:5 so angels seems to be more appropriate in that it provides more details and consistency though both say man is made lower than God as angels are lower than God.
My point is that the NIV, NKJV, NASB and many if not all "newer" translations' introduction of such differences is totally unnecessary and detracts from unity of scripture although the NIV does explain such differences in the margin notes. But that is part of the spiritual warfare that none can escape no matter one's faith/religion for the Pharisee and Sadducee contrast will most likely persist in various forms until Jesus returns. Therefore, TLCMBC officially considers non-KJV translations in the same sense of various commentaries that explain scripture using more contemporary language phrases/constructs; this includes the New KJV. Therefore, TLCMBC officially requests that all persons reading or quoting scripture in the assembly from a non-KJV Bible to have when possible pre-compared the non-KJV scripture to the KJV to ensure doctrinal completeness and doctrinal consistency. In the final analysis seek God and let the Holy Spirit guide you in properly assessing the various translations available. The way TLCMBC ministerial staff handles such non-KJV translations presence in the assembly is when a doctrinal inconsistency is observed that is considered serious enough then the staff will point it out in the assembly not as a matter of intended harm to the reader but one of intended help to all. If desired, click Comparison of KJV to New Age Bibles for one comparison chart though the chart may not be exhaustive.
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